the above answer is correct. In logic, and in the physical world, there is no such thing as the unstoppable force, nor the immovable object. mass cannot be infinite, except at the speed of light, but the amount of inertia slowing the approach to the speed of light would make that impossible…so cannot have infinite mass, and […]
Written on Wednesday, July 16th, 2008 by marymoreno :: 0 comments to this post
the above answer is correct.
In logic, and in the physical world, there is no such thing as the unstoppable force, nor the immovable object.
mass cannot be infinite, except at the speed of light, but the amount of inertia slowing the approach to the speed of light would make that impossible…so cannot have infinite mass, and hence no infinite(unstoppable)force.
Immovable also implicitly implies the ability of that object to exert and infinite(unstoppable force) to resist any other force.
Basically the above can be summarised as two unstoppable forces acting on eachother, which is impossible because we all know that their has to be a resultant, or they balance eachother out for equilibrium.
Unstoppable does not equal Unstoppable, and do not balance.
Something has to give…
Post Comments Here » 0 comments to this post
Check the Categories below for more on conundrum!?
More from Uncategorized(t) Categories
« orlando florida? :: Could someone please explain how to bubble sort a linked list on c++??? »
